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Did anyone notice when Spenser’s and Shakespeare’s Early Modern English became Modern English?

[ … ] “In the mean time, ‘tis a surprizing Reflection, that between what Spencer wrote last [1599?], and Waller first [ca. 1625?], there should not be much above twenty years distance: and yet one’s Language, like the Money of that time, is as currant now as ever; whilst the other’s words are like old Coyns, one must go to an Antiquary to understand their true meaning and value. Such advances may a great Genius make, when it undertakes any thing in earnest. Continue reading Did anyone notice when Spenser’s and Shakespeare’s Early Modern English became Modern English?